0 votes
20 views

The Boolean expression \(∼(p⇒(∼q))\) is equivalent to :

(a) p ^ q

(b)\( q⇒∼ p\)

(c) p v q

(d)  \((∼p)⇒q\)

in Uncategorized by Expert (10.9k points)
edited by | 20 views

1 Answer

0 votes
Best answer

Correct option is A)  p^q 

Explaination::
\(∼(p⇒(∼q))\) 

as \({p⇒q \ is \ same \ as \ ∼p v q}\) 

we get \(∼((∼p) v(∼q)) = \)  p^q

 

by Expert (10.9k points)
744 questions
723 answers
11 comments
24 users