20 views

The Boolean expression $$∼(p⇒(∼q))$$ is equivalent to :

(a) p ^ q

(b)$$q⇒∼ p$$

(c) p v q

(d)  $$(∼p)⇒q$$

edited | 20 views

$$∼(p⇒(∼q))$$
as $${p⇒q \ is \ same \ as \ ∼p v q}$$
we get $$∼((∼p) v(∼q)) =$$  p^q