The Boolean expression ∼(p⇒(∼q)) is equivalent to :

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The Boolean expression $$∼(p⇒(∼q))$$ is equivalent to :

(a) p ^ q

(b)$$q⇒∼ p$$

(c) p v q

(d)  $$(∼p)⇒q$$

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verified

Correct option is A)  p^q

Explaination::
$$∼(p⇒(∼q))$$

as $${p⇒q \ is \ same \ as \ ∼p v q}$$

we get $$∼((∼p) v(∼q)) =$$  p^q